[Jul-2023] Free NAPLEX Exam Questions NAPLEX Actual Free Exam Questions
Verified NAPLEX dumps and 155 unique questions
The NAPLEX exam is a critical step in the process of obtaining a pharmacist license, which is required to practice pharmacy in the United States and Canada. NAPLEX exam measures the competency of pharmacy graduates in various areas, including drug therapy, patient care, and pharmacy practice management. It tests the practical knowledge and skills necessary to provide safe and effective drug therapy to patients and to ensure that pharmacy services are provided in a professional and ethical manner.
The NAPLEX exam covers a wide range of topics related to pharmacy practice, including pharmacotherapy, patient assessment and counseling, drug dispensing and distribution, and pharmaceutical calculations. NAPLEX exam comprises 250 multiple choice questions, which must be completed within a time limit of 6 hours. The passing score for the exam is 75, and candidates are allowed to retake the exam up to five times if they do not pass on their first attempt.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is considered first-line therapy for reducing the risk of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD)?
- A. Bile acid resins
- B. Nicotinic Acid
- C. Fish oil
- D. Fibrates
- E. HMG Co-A reductase inhibitors
Answer: E
Explanation:
Explanation
ATP4 found that the use of statins for prevention of ASCVD is extensive and consistent. Statin therapy is recommended for patients at a higher risk of ASCVD who are most likely to experience a net benefit in terms of the potential for risk reduction vs the potential for adverse effects. Non-statin therapies do not provide sufficient benefits in the reduction of ASCVD risk in regards to their potential for adverse effects.
NEW QUESTION # 26
FT is a 23-year-old newly diagnosed type I diabetes admitted to the hospital due to diabetes ketoacidosis. 2 days after being on insulin drip, anion gap is closed. Physician would like your help in transitioning her to subcutaneous insulin. She suggests using insulin glargine once a day and Insulin lispro three time a day at ratio of 70:30. 70 % of long and 30 % of short acting insulin. FT received average of 70 units of insulin in 24hrs.
Which of the following would be the best insulin regimen?
- A. 49 units of Insulin Glargine subcutaneous daily and 7 units of Insulin Lispro subcutaneous three times a day with meals
- B. 25 units of Insulin Glargine subcutaneous daily and 15 units of Insulin Lispro subcutaneous three times a day with meals
- C. 52 units of Insulin Glargine subcutaneous daily and 6 units of Insulin Lispro subcutaneous three times a day with meals
- D. 40 units of Insulin Glargine subcutaneous daily and 10 units of Insulin Lispro subcutaneous three times a day with meals
- E. 46 units of Insulin Glargine subcutaneous daily and 8 units of Insulin Lispro subcutaneous three times a day with meals
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
70% of 70 units = 49 units of Insulin Glargine daily 30% of 70 units = 21 units of Insulin Lispro daily. Dived in 3 doses would be 7 units three times a day. FT's Insulin regimen should be 49 units of Insulin Glargine subcutaneous daily and 7 units of Insulin Lispro subcutaneous three times a day with meals
NEW QUESTION # 27
The rate that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the rate of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure is definition of which of the following?
- A. Relative risk
- B. Confidence Interval
- C. Prevelance rate
- D. Incidence rate
- E. Odds ratio
Answer: A
Explanation:
RR = rate of an outcome occurring in an exposed group (treatment group/intervention group) divided by the rate of an outcome occurring in an unexposed group (control group) Ex: Relative Risk = Rate of UTI in patients taking drug XYZ / rate of UTI in patients not on drug XYZ Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2938757/
NEW QUESTION # 28
WM did not receive influenza vaccine prior to the start of this season, it's now December. He did get influenza vaccine last year. Which of the following is correct course of action?
- A. Vaccinate him with influenza vaccine since influenza season lasts until March in your community.
- B. Start Amantadine 200mg daily
- C. Skip influenza vaccine for this year since he received vaccine last year.
- D. Start WM on Tamiflu to prevent him from getting influenza.
- E. Skip influenza vaccine for this year since it's too late.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Influenza vaccine is recommended annually, thus, WM should not skip it this year, and B is incorrect. Also, per the CDC, seasonal influenza outbreaks can occur as early as October, however, most activity peaks in January or later. Thus, it is not too late for WM to receive his vaccine in December, thus A is incorrect. Lastly, antiviral medications such as Tamiflu are an important adjunct to vaccinations. They are recommended as early as possible for any patient with confirmed or suspected influenza who, is 1) Hospitalized, 2) has severe, complicated, or progressive illness or 3) is at higher risk for influenza complications. Thus, WM is not a candidate with the given information and C is incorrect. Starting Tamiflu or Amantadine is not recommended for prevention. It has indication for treatment and prophylaxis.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following Anti-epileptic medication can cause pancreatitis?
- A. Carbamazepine
- B. Levetiracetam
- C. Gabapentin
- D. Phenobarbital
- E. Valproic acid
Answer: E
Explanation:
Explanation
Cases of life-threatening pancreatitis have been reported in both pediatric and adult patients receiving valproic acid or its analogs. Patients should be warned that abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and/or anorexia can be symptoms of pancreatitis that require prompt medical evaluation. If pancreatitis is diagnosed, valproate should be discontinued.
NEW QUESTION # 30
LN is 84 YOM who is in hospital for a back surgery. His height is 5 feet and 4 inches, weight 85 kg and NKDA.
His past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes mellitus, major depression, hypothyroidism and chronic back pain. Post-op day 1, LN's medication includes Dexamethasone 8mg iv q6h with taper dosing, Ondansetron 4 mg iv q6h prn for N/V, Levothyroxine 0.075 mg po daily, Lisinopril 10 mg po daily, Citalopram
20 mg po daily, Docusate sodium / Senna 1 tab po twice a day, Bisacodyl 10 mg suppository daily prn for constipation, Famotidine 20 mg iv q12hr, Metoclopramide 10mg iv q6h, Metformin 500 mg po bid, D51/2NS with 20K at 125 mls/hour and Hydromorphone PCA at 0.2mg/hour of basal rate, demand dose 0.1 mg. lock-out every 6min, one hour limit 2.2 mg/hour. Pertinent morning labs includes serum creatinine 1.4 mg/dl, Mg 1.5 mg/dl, K 5.0 mmol/L, Na 135 mmol/L.
Which of the following medication/s should LN be on to prevent the most common side effect of hydromorphone?
- A. Docusate sodium / Senna for Constipation and ondansetron for N/V
- B. Insulin Sliding scale for hyperglycemia
- C. Docusate sodium / Senna for Constipation
- D. Ondansetron for N/V
- E. Dexamethasone for N/V
Answer: A
Explanation:
LN should be on docusate sodium/Senna for constipation and ondansetron for N/V. Dexamethasone has an off label use for N/V that is chemotherapy-associated. It is mostly used as an anti-inflammatory or immunosuppressant agent. Hydromorphone does not cause hyperglycemia. The most common side effects of opioids are nausea, vomiting and constipation.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Pyridoxine is often used in pregnancy to manage which of the following conditions?
- A. Hot flushes
- B. Insomnia
- C. Nausea / vomiting
- D. Diarrhea
- E. Mood disturbances
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Pyridoxine is combined with doxylamine to treat morning sickness in pregnant women.
NEW QUESTION # 32
According to the 2013 ACC/AHA Guideline on the Treatment of Blood Cholesterol to ReduceAtherosclerotic Cardiovascular Risk in Adults, which of the following LDL cholesterol thresholds is an indication for high- intensity statin therapy?
- A. 190 mg/dL
- B. 130 mg/dL
- C. 200 mg/dL
- D. 150 mg/dL
- E. 100 mg/dL
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Statin therapy should be used as treatment in adults with primary LDL-C 190 mg/dL and age over 21 years.
Unless contraindicated, high-intensity statin therapy should be used.
NEW QUESTION # 33
What is the Osmolarity of NS with KCL 40 meq/L? (MW of KCl: 74.55 g/mol) (MW of NaCl: 58.44 g/mol)
- A. 830 mOsm/L
- B. 388 mOsm/L
- C. 800 mOsm/L
- D. 308 mOm/L
- E. 1108 mOsm/L
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
KCl: Osmoles = number of particles in solution Convert 40meq to weight in g: 40meq * 1equiv/1000 mEq *
74.5g/1 equiv = 2.98g of KCL. Calculate mOsm/L: 2.98g/L * 1mol/74.5g * 2Osm/1 mol * 1000mOsm/1 Osm
= 80mOsm/L. NaCl: 0.9g/100ml * 1mol/58.5 g * 2 Osm/1mol * 1000 mOsm/ 1Osm * 1000ml/1L = 308 mOsm/L 80 mOsm/L + 308 mOsm/L = 388 mOsm/L
NEW QUESTION # 34
If LN receives Dextrose 5% half Normal Saline with 20 meq of Potassium as IVF at 125mls/hour. How much dextrose is he getting in 24hrs?
- A. 150gm
- B. 500gm
- C. 50gm
- D. 200gm
- E. 300gm
Answer: A
Explanation:
0.05 (1000 mL) = 50 g 1000 mL × (1 hour/125 mL) = 8 hours 50 × 3 = 150 g
NEW QUESTION # 35
Select the class of Anti-diabetic medication that works in the specified organ to prevent hyperglycemia. Select all that applies. Muscle (F)
- A. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists
- B. Biguanide
- C. Alpha- Glucosidase Inhibitors
- D. DPP4 Inhibitors
- E. Thiazolidinediones
- F. Sulfonylureas
- G. SGLT2 inhibitors
Answer: E
Explanation:
Explanation
Sulfonylureas work in beta cells in the pancreas that are still functioning to enhance insulin secretion. Alpha- Glucosidase Inhibitors stop -glucosidase enzymes in the small intestine and delay digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides which lowers the levels of glucose after meals. DPP4 blocks the degradation ofGLP-1, GIP, and a variety of other peptides, including brain natriuretic peptide. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists work in various organs of the body. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists enhance glucose homeostasis through: (i) stimulation of insulin secretion; (ii) inhibition of glucagon secretion; (iii) direct and indirect suppression of endogenous glucose production; (iv) suppression of appetite; (v) enhanced insulin sensitivity secondary to weight loss; (vi) delayed gastric emptying, resulting in decreased postprandial hyperglycaemia. Thiazolidinediones are the only true insulin-sensitising agents, exerting their effects in skeletal and cardiac muscle, liver, and adipose tissue. It ameliorates insulin resistance, decreases visceral fat.
Biguanides work in liver, muscle, adipose tissue via activation of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) reduce hepatic glucose production. SGLT2 inhibitors work in the kidneys to inhibit sodium-glucose transport proteins to reabsorb glucose into the blood from muscle cells; overall this helps to improve insulin release from the beta cells of the pancreas.
NEW QUESTION # 36
How many millimoles of sodium are in 0.9% sodium chloride?
- A. 154 millimoles
- B. 145 millimoles
- C. 90 millimoles
- D. 99 millimoles
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
0.9% = 9 grams per every 1,000mL Molecular weight of NaCl = 58.5 9 / 58.5 = 0.154 moles 0.154 moles is the same as 154 millimoles There are 154 millimoles of sodium ions and 154 millimoles of chloride ions in
0.9% sodium chloride.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following would be most appropriate to treat stenotrophomonas maltophilia?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Cefepime
- C. Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim
- D. Vancomycin
- E. Meropenem
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Primary treatment for stenotrophomonas maltophilia is SMX-TMP. Meropenem, ciprofloxacin, and vancomycin have no coverage.
NEW QUESTION # 38
A Physician orders Dobutamine HCl IV infusion at 5 mcg/kg/min. Dobutamine HCl is available as 500 mg in
250 mL of D5W. The patient weighs 68 kg. Calculate the infusion rate in mL/hr.
- A. 340mls/hr
- B. 22.4mls/hr
- C. 5.2mls/hr
- D. 10.2mls/hr
- E. 0.17mls/hr
Answer: D
Explanation:
68 kg × [5 mcg/kg/min] = 340 mcg/min Bag concentration = 2 mg/ml or 2000 mcg/ml 340 mcg × [1 mL/2000 mcg] = 0.17 mL/min 60 in × [0.17 mL/min] = 10.2 mLs in one hour
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is true regarding extent of absorption of drugs?
- A. Drugs which are too hydrophilic are not soluble enough to cross the water layer adjacent to the cell
- B. After oral ingestion of drugs, the absorption of drug may be incomplete
- C. Drugs which are too lipophilic cannot cross the lipid cell membrane
- D. Grape juice activates P-glycoprotein leading to substantial inhibition of absorption of drugs
- E. P-glycoprotein is an efflux transporter which is present in the enterocytes and it enhances the absorption of drug
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
It is not necessary that all the drugs get completely absorbed after oral administration. Most of them are incompletely absorbed. The extent of absorption varies from 5 to less than 100 % with oral ingestion of drugs.
Drugs which are too hydrophilic like atenolol are incompletely absorbed because the drug cannot cross the lipid membrane due to high hydrophilic nature of the drug. Similarly, drugs which are too lipophilic like acyclovir are not soluble enough to cross the water layer adjacent to the cell. P-glycoprotein is an efflux transporter which is present in the enterocytes and it inhibits absorption of drug. It is also known as export transporter or reverse transporter. It has many drugs as its substrate. Grape juice in fact inhibits P-glycoprotein in the intestine thereby decreasing the efflux of drug from the cells by P-glycoprotein. Thus ingestion of grape juice may lead to significantly increased absorption of the drug.
NEW QUESTION # 40
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